this post was submitted on 29 Nov 2023
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Machine Learning

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I want to train a model for a musician based on piano covers they have recorded of popular songs and therefore own, but because of copyright infringement they still pay royalties to the writers of these songs. Curious if this is legal or not -- I would presume not since the recordings are not being monetized in this scenario but rather fed into a model, and the recordings are still owned 100% by the musician licensing them to me.

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[โ€“] f10101@alien.top 1 points 11 months ago (1 children)

Yes, the recordings are 100% owned by the musician.

The songs themselves though, are not. If your focus is to generate new songs, then while there's a good chance you're in the clear, it is still an unanswered question. You're essentially taking a bet that it's legal.

If your focus is to be able to do a style transfer, i.e. turning music into something that sounds like it was performed by your pianist, then use of the data becomes something that is more easily covered under existing fair use.

I would suggest it may be something of a moot point though: can you actually build a useful musical model with this little data?

[โ€“] SuperwhizAJ@alien.top 1 points 11 months ago

great points. the focus is so he can create more covers with the model. so the latter.

would the fair use norm be that its transforming the original songs/being trained on transformations so it would be all good? the original songs would be used during training as input to the model, but any generations would still have royalties be returned to the songwriters should the musician intend to monetize them.

re your last point: this musician has a lot of data. 30+ hours :P