this post was submitted on 14 Nov 2024
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politics

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[–] jordanlund@lemmy.world 20 points 1 day ago (16 children)

Nope.

Even if they repealed the 22nd Amendment, we don't allow ex post facto laws, so the repeal wouldn't apply to him.

United States Constitution
Article 1, Section 9, Clause 3
"No Bill of Attainder or ex post facto Law shall be passed."

Article 1, Section 10
"No State shall enter into any Treaty, Alliance, or Confederation; grant Letters of Marque and Reprisal; coin Money; emit Bills of Credit; make any Thing but gold and silver Coin a Tender in Payment of Debts; pass any Bill of Attainder, ex post facto Law, or Law impairing the Obligation of Contracts, or grant any Title of Nobility."

In case you're wondering, "Bill of Attainder":

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bill_of_attainder

"an act of a legislature declaring a person, or a group of people, guilty of some crime, and providing for a punishment, often without a trial. As with attainder resulting from the normal judicial process, the effect of such a bill is to nullify the targeted person's civil rights, most notably the right to own property (and thus pass it on to heirs), the right to a title of nobility, and, in at least the original usage, the right to life itself."

[–] LodeMike@lemmy.today 4 points 17 hours ago

Any amendment would be on the same level, and therefore its down to what's more specific.

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