this post was submitted on 10 Apr 2024
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[–] mondoman712@lemmy.ml 24 points 7 months ago
[–] Deceptichum@sh.itjust.works 20 points 7 months ago (2 children)

1902 in Australia. It’d have been earlier but we weren’t a country until the year before.

[–] Not_mikey@slrpnk.net 8 points 7 months ago (1 children)

I know rural western states in the u.s. like Montana gave women the right to vote early since there gender ratios was heavily male and they wanted to attract more women to the state. Australia was probably in a similar frontier stage at that point so I wonder what there gender ratios were then.

[–] marine_mustang@sh.itjust.works 6 points 7 months ago

You’re probably thinking of Wyoming. Wikipedia: The first state to grant women the right to vote had been Wyoming,[6] in 1869, followed by Utah[7] in 1870, Colorado in 1893, Idaho in 1896, Washington[8] in 1910, California[9] in 1911, Oregon[10] and Arizona[11] in 1912, Montana in 1914, North Dakota, New York,[12] and Rhode Island[13] in 1917, Louisiana,[14] Oklahoma,[15] and Michigan[16] in 1918.[17]

Nationwide in the US, it was 1920.

[–] meathorse@lemmy.world 6 points 7 months ago (1 children)

And 1893 in New Zealand - Southern Hemisphere Power Couple baby!

[–] Deceptichum@sh.itjust.works 1 points 7 months ago

NZ always copying Australia!

Love youse guts though

[–] bionicjoey@lemmy.ca 12 points 7 months ago

Makes sense. The suffrage movement was pretty closely tied to the depopulation of men caused by WW1&2. Since Switzerland didn't participate, they would have been insulated from the societal forces that brought about women's suffrage.

[–] sharkfucker420@lemmy.ml 11 points 7 months ago (1 children)

Wonder what else happened in 1917

[–] CraigeryTheKid@lemm.ee 3 points 7 months ago* (last edited 7 months ago) (1 children)

WW1 is my guess? The men were busy, so to get things passed they added them other half of humans.

(Busy... Or dead that is)

[–] sharkfucker420@lemmy.ml 5 points 7 months ago

I was referring to the october revolution in jest

[–] Spendrill@lemm.ee 8 points 7 months ago

Pero no

Women's suffrage in Francoist Spain and the democratic transition was constrained by age limits, definitions around heads of household and a lack of elections. Women got the right to vote in Spain in 1933 as a result of legal changes made during the Second Spanish Republic. Women lost most of their rights after Franco came to power in 1939 at the end of the Spanish Civil War, with the major exception that women did not universally lose their right to vote. Repression of the women's vote occurred nevertheless as the dictatorship held no national democratic elections between 1939 and 1977.