this post was submitted on 10 Sep 2026
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[–] ZebulonP@lemmy.world 30 points 13 hours ago (3 children)

How does this not violate 2-party consent?

[–] thatOneGuy@aussie.zone 2 points 3 hours ago (1 children)

There is probably some technicality in that since it doesn’t record audio, but rather just keeps a transcription - that it might not fall afoul of two-party consent?

[–] spizzat2@lemmy.zip 6 points 1 hour ago (1 children)

Even if it is only temporarily stored to RAM for processing, I struggle to see how that doesn't still count as "recording".

[–] thatOneGuy@aussie.zone 2 points 1 hour ago (1 children)

It probably wouldn’t meet the strict legal definition, as no copy (physical or digital) is left behind for any period of time - as RAM is volatile and its contents disappear on power cycle.

[–] prole@lemmy.blahaj.zone 2 points 45 minutes ago

Or it probably would, they just have no plan to stop it unless they get sued and a judge forces them

[–] JustEnoughDucks@feddit.nl 16 points 7 hours ago

Corporations are allowed to do whatever they want, whenever they want. There might be a few tiny consequences 10-20 years later that shaves a couple months of profit down, but that is just the cost of business and massive profits for the rest of the time.

Hope this helps!

[–] isVeryLoud@lemmy.ca 4 points 12 hours ago (1 children)

Not every country or country subdivision has two party consent. Canada is a one party consent legislation.

[–] ZebulonP@lemmy.world 7 points 8 hours ago (3 children)

I understand that. What about the places that do?

[–] isVeryLoud@lemmy.ca 1 points 10 minutes ago

They can disable it based on geolocation, or like others said, put the onus on the user to know best.

[–] TheHobbyist@lemmy.zip 1 points 3 hours ago

I'm guessing they'll put the responsibility on the user to only activate it when it has the consent of people around it or something...

[–] Arcane2077@sh.itjust.works 1 points 4 hours ago

Won’t exist there