this post was submitted on 10 Sep 2026
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How does this not violate 2-party consent?
There is probably some technicality in that since it doesn’t record audio, but rather just keeps a transcription - that it might not fall afoul of two-party consent?
Even if it is only temporarily stored to RAM for processing, I struggle to see how that doesn't still count as "recording".
It probably wouldn’t meet the strict legal definition, as no copy (physical or digital) is left behind for any period of time - as RAM is volatile and its contents disappear on power cycle.
Or it probably would, they just have no plan to stop it unless they get sued and a judge forces them
Corporations are allowed to do whatever they want, whenever they want. There might be a few tiny consequences 10-20 years later that shaves a couple months of profit down, but that is just the cost of business and massive profits for the rest of the time.
Hope this helps!
Not every country or country subdivision has two party consent. Canada is a one party consent legislation.
I understand that. What about the places that do?
They can disable it based on geolocation, or like others said, put the onus on the user to know best.
I'm guessing they'll put the responsibility on the user to only activate it when it has the consent of people around it or something...
Won’t exist there