this post was submitted on 31 Dec 2025
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[–] null@piefed.nullspace.lol 0 points 1 week ago (1 children)

if it isn’t, in fact, the winter solstice, then it is arbitrary.

That's not true though. The date is significant and not arbitrary, it's just not the winter solstice (anymore).

[–] DagwoodIII@piefed.social 0 points 1 week ago (1 children)

Actually, there is no such thing as a 'winter solstice.' The start of the Northern winter is the start of the Southern summer.

[–] null@piefed.nullspace.lol 1 points 1 week ago (1 children)

Sure. But none of that makes New Years Day arbitrary by virtue of it not being, in fact, the winter solstice.

[–] DagwoodIII@piefed.social 1 points 1 week ago (1 children)

If you use the equinoxes or the solstices you're still being arbitrary because there are two of each.

January 4 is the day of the year that the Earth is closest to the Sun [perihelion] That would be a good date, but there will be those who argue for stating the year when Earth is furthest away.

[–] null@piefed.nullspace.lol 0 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago) (1 children)

Okay, but why would that mean that New Years Day not being the winter solstice makes it arbitrary to celebrate on Jan 1?

[–] DagwoodIII@piefed.social 2 points 1 week ago (1 children)

It's arbitrary because there's no moment that is the obvious beginning of the cycle.

That's the very definition of 'arbitrary'

[–] null@piefed.nullspace.lol -1 points 1 week ago

That moment is the moment the Julian calendar restarts. It's not arbitrary at all, and certainly not made so by virtue of it not being the/a winter solstice (your original statement).