reliv3

joined 2 years ago
[–] reliv3@lemmy.world 5 points 16 hours ago* (last edited 15 hours ago)

Not exactly germ theory, but the early concepts of contamination which ultimately led to germ theory.

The Native Americans at the time did not postulate the concept of bacteria and viruses, but they understood that sickness was not supernatural and that it was important to sterilize in order to prevent further sickness.

Native American medicine was in many ways more advanced when compared to European medicine at the time. They also introduced things like sun screen, painkillers, and dental hygiene to Europeans.

[–] reliv3@lemmy.world 8 points 16 hours ago* (last edited 15 hours ago) (2 children)

Some Major Issues:

  1. The industrial revolution started almost a century and a half after 1600 (in 1760) which was well after European colonization.

  2. You are assuming that Europe would have developed the same way if they remained isolated. For example, the fundamental ideas which ultimately led to the modern concept of disease (bacteria and virus causing infection) was introduced to Europeans via the Native Americans. Beforehand, Europeans thought sickness was caused by religious superstition. This is why sterilization between surgeries wasn't really a thing in Europe beforehand. European medicine involved reusing bloody knives to perform surgerys on different people because they didn't understand the concept of cross contamination.

The knowledge today is not purely the result of European thinkers. Your prediction grossly discounts the contributions to science and technology from other cultures in world.

[–] reliv3@lemmy.world 2 points 3 days ago

BeliefPropagator posted a link above which possibly verifies the screenshot: https://simonwillison.net/2025/Jul/11/grok-musk/

[–] reliv3@lemmy.world 5 points 3 days ago (1 children)

I get that we need to be wary of AI slop, I really do; but If speaking academic English with decent grammar becomes associated with talking "like a bot", then we are cooked.

[–] reliv3@lemmy.world 21 points 5 days ago

It depends on the state. Oklahoma is ranked 49 of 50 for its k-12 public education system, and we are seeing evidence of this here.

I am a physics teacher in a New Jersey high school (and not even a high ranked school) and I would say that a majority of the teachers are true professionals with masters degrees in education. New Jersey is ranked 2 of 50 though (just behind Massachusetts). We also see teachers salaries around and over $100,000 in New Jersey so it entices more people to become teachers and treat the job very seriously.

[–] reliv3@lemmy.world 1 points 1 week ago (1 children)

You are a waste of time

[–] reliv3@lemmy.world 1 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago) (3 children)

I used the higher level 3-dimensional definition of work, and you told my I was wrong and provided my the high school level 1-dimensional definition of work. Then you hang it over my head and try to correct me as if my definition is incorrect.

The fact is your knowledge of physics is so low that you didn't even know this nuance; and you are not arguing in good faith because this is something you easily could have looked up and realized if all you cared about wasn't "being right".

[–] reliv3@lemmy.world 0 points 1 week ago (5 children)

It's very apparent that you are not a good faith discusser and your knowledge of physics is very low.

I'm checking out of this discussion

[–] reliv3@lemmy.world -1 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago) (7 children)

Not AI. I'm in academia, so I write academically.

I specify "physics work" to mean physic's definition of work (dot product between Force and Displacement).

And to not connect the importance between the electric and magnetic field as it pertains to the the electrostatic force and magnetic force reveals your basic understanding of the physics. Hence, why your prior comment was so problematic...

[–] reliv3@lemmy.world -2 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago) (10 children)

Oh boy, this is very incorrect, because it sounds like you are attempting to explain magnetism with electrostatic forces. Here is a basic model which separates the difference between the two:

  1. Electrostatic forces are caused by the electric field. Something produces an electric field simply by having an unbalanced charge. Positive attracts negative, negative repels negative, positive repels positive.

  2. Magnetic forces are caused by the magnetic field. Something produces a magnetic field by having an unbalanced charge AND is moving.

This is why when trying to explain how solid magnets work, we focus on the electrons because electrons are charged particles that are always moving. So they produce both an electric field (being charged) and a magnetic field (being a moving charged system).

Rhaedas is sorta correct. Any solid system has the capability of being a magnet, but this takes an incredible amount of physics work where iron is special. Iron's electrons are able to easily maintain a synchronous orbit with each other which results in magnetic forces being observable at a macroscopic scale (seeing iron magnets pull on each other). In most other materials, the electrons orbits are chaotic, so even though magnetic fields are still being produced by their electrons, the lack of order results in no magnetic force being observable on the macroscopic scale; but if you place this non-iron material within a very strong magnetic field, you may be able to align their electrons orbits so that it becomes magnetic on the macroscopic scale (like iron).

[–] reliv3@lemmy.world 1 points 4 weeks ago

The correct method is to actually articulate the irrelevancy; but that takes real work... Either that or perhaps the teacher doesn't understand what the irrelevancy is, so instead, they resort to just repeating the same thing: not internalizing that perhaps the math isn't as simple as they think.

[–] reliv3@lemmy.world 1 points 1 month ago* (last edited 1 month ago) (2 children)

Restating your prior point in a different way doesn't make it any more or less correct. The point is these two things seem to be independent from each other, which, if true, would already disprove the modified claim you are presenting.

The issue is, there exist plenty of people who are bad at both, good at both, and bad at one and good at the other. This pattern doesn't support a strong connection between being class conscious and being socially conscious.

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