this post was submitted on 24 Aug 2023
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cross-posted from: https://lemmy.crimedad.work/post/12162

Why? Because apparently they need some more incentive to keep units occupied. Also, even though a property might be vacant, there's still imputed rental income there. Its owner is just receiving it in the form of enjoying the unit for himself instead of receiving an actual rent check from a tenant. That imputed rent ought to be taxed like any other income.

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[–] Zuberi@lemmy.dbzer0.com 0 points 1 year ago (1 children)

They make 0$, so how is it an "income" tax

[–] nat_turner_overdrive@hexbear.net 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

nominal income

nominal income

nominal income

you're welcome to disagree but wasting this much time pretending to not understand is just childish, have a very nice day weirdo

[–] Zuberi@lemmy.dbzer0.com 0 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

It's taxed upon selling, for the value of the house, which would tax exactly what you're talking about.

Trying to act like I'm not understanding makes you sound "childish" my dude. Grow tf up and READ. INCOME TAX ON ZERO DOLLARS IS ZERO DOLLARS

Edit: This dude's banner is a 9/11 photo. Nice.. I'm arguing with a literal troglodyte over the semantics of a dumb article title.

Edit: This dude's banner is a 9/11 photo. Nice.. I'm arguing with a literal troglodyte over the semantics of a dumb article title.

michael-laugh