this post was submitted on 22 Aug 2025
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[–] Ferrous@lemmy.ml 6 points 1 month ago (2 children)

Wouldn't that count as slave labour?

Not according to the Allies at the Yalta conference.

By the late 1940s, the only people claiming that the labor enjoyed by the Soviets at the hands of captured Nazis was "slavery" - were Nazis.

By all allied accounts, using German labor to pay reparations was deemed acceptable given how the Soviets had just sacrificed 27 million people.

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Forced_labor_of_Germans_after_World_War_II

[–] SpaceCowboy@lemmy.ca 3 points 1 month ago

Two wrongs don't make a right.

The Treaty of Versailles was really unfair to the German people but that didn't justify anything the Nazis did. The terrible things the Nazis did also didn't justify the terrible things the Soviets did.

[–] RaivoKulli@sopuli.xyz 1 points 1 month ago

Forced labour hmm. I mean it definitely sounds like slave labour, just lawful form of it. The article does have a quote:

"In accordance with the Yalta agreement, the Russians were using slave labor of millions of Germans and other prisoners of war and civilians"