this post was submitted on 25 Mar 2026
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Why is that not relevant? It's poverty and guns in combination.
Can you explain more how it's the "same shit"? What does the nuance actually provide? I don't get it. Why exactly does people in gangs killing each other due to poverty and gun availability differ from other people killing each other due to poverty and gun availability? Serious question.
Of course, brother/other. π€
Because Mexico has basically banned citizens from owning guns there. It's nearly impossible to own them, unless you're wealthy. And that's the end goal of anti-gun groups. Ban the guns because they cause the violence and not society. But Mexico is an example of the guns are banned but society is still violent.
Because it's used as propaganda to get people to believe that crime is actually worse than it really is. It's like when Republicans point out how Chicago is a death hole, and that it's riddled with gangs. And no one should go to that blue city, they're doing it because it's propaganda to their side. They want red voters to go "yea, blue votes = unsafe cities". When you and I know that Chicago as a whole is very safe, it's certain areas with gang violence that skew the statistics to make it seem like it's a hell hole. It's all about the nuance of the problem and if you don't look into how facts are twisted by each side then you'll never see the agenda being driven.
It's a breath of fresh air, to actually have a discussion on this topic without being called a baby killer or that I'm a Nazi or some other crazy shit just because I'm a very pro2a person.