this post was submitted on 19 Jul 2026
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From the article - "The agency said Rapp and a fellow bicyclist were riding on a local road when Medina passed them in his car, stopped, and drove his vehicle in reverse. Medina then hit Rapp, and she was pronounced dead after emergency responders brought her to a hospital."

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[–] Vanth@reddthat.com 73 points 1 day ago (3 children)

In Texas, murder applies when the person

Intentionally or knowingly cause the death of another person [or] Intend to cause serious bodily injury and commit an act clearly dangerous to human life that results in death

While manslaughter means

if they recklessly cause the death of another person. Unlike murder, manslaughter does not require intent to kill or cause serious injury. It focuses on reckless behavior that creates a substantial and unjustifiable risk of death.

Sure reads like those charges should bump from manslaughter to murder.

[–] some_kind_of_guy@lemmy.world 3 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago)

Though we all think we know what happened, intentionally and/or knowingly are much harder to prove. It has to be "beyond reasonable doubt". So if the available facts don't back that up, a manslaughter case could be a much safer way to get a conviction. It could be bumped up to murder if new facts come to light as part of the investigation, though.

[–] tazeycrazy@feddit.uk 23 points 1 day ago (7 children)

It all hinges on the intent to kill. I'm sure he now would say he didn't intend to kill. just to hit them and teach them to stay off the road. They have enough to charge them with both. And let a jury sort it out.

[–] anomnom@sh.itjust.works 1 points 3 hours ago

If there’s skid marks, he better get upgraded charges. He has a history of this shit too:

Those jail records also showed prior arrests for Medina on counts such as deadly conduct by discharging a firearm, assault causing bodily injury, and reckless driving. Dispositions for those cases were not immediately available.

[–] mjr@infosec.pub 35 points 1 day ago (2 children)

Saying you intended to hit someone with a motor vehicle is saying to intended to kill them, unless you're provably insane and don't understand that hitting someone is likely to kill.

[–] podian@piefed.social 2 points 21 hours ago

Even a legally "insane" defendant would most often be found to have met the "knowing" criteria; the bar is that of foresight or knowledge (including constructed knowledge in some jurisdictions) of "merely" physical harm that is likely to cause grievous injury or death. No metaphysics required.

For example, acting to cause the stoppage of breath (that "happened" to result in death) is an automatic pass for murder in many common law countries.

[–] jollyrogue@lemmy.ml 3 points 1 day ago

I expect to see them say bike riding is a form of protest, and he was afraid. 😆

[–] manxu@piefed.social 18 points 1 day ago

Agreed, intent is hard to prove. That's why the law also says, "knowingly." He definitely knew he could kill someone by hitting them with his car.

The man had priors for reckless driving, according to the article. And a bunch of other things.

[–] mkwt@lemmy.world 9 points 1 day ago

just to hit them and teach them to stay off the road

That right there is intent to commit "an act dangerous to human life" under the Texas murder statute quoted above.

[–] quick_snail@feddit.nl 5 points 1 day ago

So when I shot my ex in the spine, it wasn't murder. I was only trying to paralyze them.

[–] some_kind_of_guy@lemmy.world 1 points 1 day ago

ianal, but I don't think they could be charged with both murder and manslaughter. Wouldn't that violate double jeopardy? Otherwise there would be absurdities where people get charged with the whole spectrum of criminal intent just to see what sticks. (Which does totally happen anyway, when they can get away with it.)

That 'or knowingly' closes the door on that hinge.