this post was submitted on 26 Jul 2026
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If he wasnt in the US how can the US claim he violated a US law?
Are we reading the same article?
The US claims jurisdiction over its citizens wherever they are.
Which isn't necessarily a bad thing, because it means you can be prosecuted in the US for stuff like going to Thailand and sexually abusing children there.
So the law applies, but protection under the law does not.
Isn't all law essentially derived from powers granted by the constitution?
If the powers granted by it to enforce a law are applicable when not within the US then then it very reasonably ought to apply to any and all amendments.
But, reason is on the extinction list with the magafascists. (And all LEO)