this post was submitted on 08 Nov 2025
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Science Memes

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[–] Illecors@lemmy.cafe 20 points 1 week ago (3 children)

Any explanation for the mathematically challenged?

[–] ChaoticNeutralCzech@feddit.org 45 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago) (3 children)

She is derivation, a transform of functions that describes rate of 𝑓(π‘₯) changing as π‘₯ changes. (This can be represented visually as the slope of the graph 𝑦 =β€‰π‘“β€Š(π‘₯).) He is the exponential function 𝑒^π‘₯^, which is the only* non-zero function whose derivative is itself - in other words, unaffected by derivation. The number 𝑒 is a constant (around 2.718) and the base of natural logarithms, hence the title.

* except its multiples such as βˆ’2β€Šπ‘’^π‘₯^, which are... just... uh... derivative works

[–] Illecors@lemmy.cafe 6 points 1 week ago

Much appreciated!

[–] felsiq@piefed.zip 1 points 1 week ago (1 children)

the only* non-zero function whose derivative is itself

* except its multiples such as βˆ’2β€Šπ‘’π‘₯, which are... just... uh...Β derivative works

I think you forgot about e^x + 1, and e^x + 2, and … …

(My profs always dunked on me for forgetting the + c and I can’t resist doing it to someone else, I’m sorry)

For real tho, great explanation

[–] knomie@feddit.org 6 points 1 week ago (1 children)

But the derivative of e^x+c is just e^x (which for c!=0 is not the same). That's why the +c is added during integrating because all +c is derived to 0 and thus indistinguishable.

[–] felsiq@piefed.zip 2 points 1 week ago

I wish I could say I commented this late at night or something, but nope I’m just dumb lmao thanks

[–] arschflugkoerper@feddit.org 18 points 1 week ago

The derivative of e^x is e^x

[–] ManeraKai@programming.dev 11 points 1 week ago (2 children)
[–] teft@piefed.social 12 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago)

If you want to use exponents on the fediverse you have to enclose the entire exponent in carats like so without the spaces:

e ^ x ^

e^x^

[–] anothercatgirl@lemmy.blahaj.zone 2 points 1 week ago (1 children)

how about derivative with respect to time instead of with respect to x?

[–] ChaoticNeutralCzech@feddit.org 10 points 1 week ago (2 children)

β€Šπ‘’^π‘₯^ has been around since the 17^th^ century and it hasn't changed since. Therefore, it's a constant with respect to time and gets unceremoniously derived to 0.

very nicely said, I agree