Because they are the same underlying condition, only presented at different levels of impediment.
Diagnosis works the same, treatment is the same, it's mostly the amount of support needed that differs.
this post was submitted on 05 Oct 2023
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And always worth remembering that Hans Asperger was a massive Nazi and part of the reason he originally made the distinction was to separate those children in his care who could be sent to work camps from those who were to be sent straight to be euthanised.
Where can I find more information about that being the reasoning for the diagnosis difference?
On the "massive nazi" claims: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5907291/
On why autism research professionals find his name association "vexing" https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5907469/
Thank you!
See, for example, this (and in particular the book it references if you really want to dig into the weeds).
Thank you!
For the same reason that we don't use the concept of race between humans, because it's a spectrum with no distinct delimitation point.
You will find people of all shades of colors, all types of hairs, etc. just like you will find autistic people with different sensitivities, different creativity, different interests, different needs, and you can fill the whole spectrum, you won't get a gap between "autistic" and "asperger".
they were basically the same. the only real distinction in the actual diagnostic criteria was about speech delay. if you took longer than usual to speak as a kid, it had to be autism, but if you spoke at a usual age, then flip a coin i guess. it was found that which diagnosis you might get would depend mostly on the doctor's personal preferences, or outside social factors, like which diagnosis wouls get better access to support under local laws, rather than any objective metric.
The book Neurotribes by Steve Silberman can be read as a very detailed answer to this question
Hans Asperger was a Nazi, and there is no qualitative difference between Asperger's and autism.