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I'm not familiar with this area of law. What's the reasoning behind this rule? From my naive perspective, it seems like whether or not an appeal is justified is independent of whether or not the defendant can afford to pay the full judgement.
Maybe to avoid having the defendant spend all their money appealing the judgment, which in case of a negative result could impact their ability to pay the fine.
Because otherwise everyone would just appeal every verdict for years just to delay payment. “Skin in the game” ffs.
If you didn't have to pay first, then there would be a financial incentive to appeal even if you don't think you can win - just to delay payment.
Make appellant's pay first to remove the financial incentive to appeal.
Honestly it's a good question and I'd also like to know the answer.
I know it's not the same, but I've had to pay tickets before challenging them in court, too. If you win, you get it back.
Annoying af when you're broke.