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I mean, his fellow judges might be corrupt enough to do so, but he couldn't sit on the judging panel for that.
Could he not? I'm genuinely interested, because I was under the impression that there wasn't anything that could force the justices to recuse themselves.
Anything that could directly effect them financially or if there is a reason that could cause bias is really when they are supposed to recuse. He lied and said his wife's actions in Jan 6 didn't effect his judgement on that case but no one could accept murder charges not effecting him financially in any way.
But Clarence Thomas accepted gifts from people who then argued in front of the Supreme Court without recusing himself without facing any consequences, so is there anything to stop it?
I understand how you could compare the two situations but I can also see how they can lie about the gift being unrelated, where them being the charged being prosecuted can't really lie his way out of showing up. Also, it would look ridiculous for him to walk back and forth across the room, he'd need a rolly chair.
They don't recuse themselves if their wife was part of an insurrection and there are no consequences for that.
Couldn't he? What rule prevents him? Like, it's the most obvious situation ever where he shouldn't be allowed to, but it's there an actual law somewhere saying so?