this post was submitted on 26 Dec 2024
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How about ANY FINITE SEQUENCE AT ALL?

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[โ€“] vrighter@discuss.tchncs.de 20 points 12 hours ago (1 children)

it's actually unknown. It looks like it, but it is not proven

[โ€“] HiddenLayer555@lemmy.ml 9 points 11 hours ago (2 children)

Also is it even possible to prove it at all? My completely math inept brain thinks that it might be similar to the countable vs uncountable infinities thing, where even if you mapped every element of a countable infinity to one in the uncountable infinity, you could still generate more elements from the uncountable infinity. Would the same kind of logic apply to sequences in pi?

[โ€“] zeca@lemmy.eco.br 1 points 2 hours ago

its been proven for some other numbers, but not yet for pi.

[โ€“] AHemlocksLie@lemmy.zip 6 points 5 hours ago

Man, you're giving me flashbacks to real analysis. Shit is weird. Like the set of all integers is the same size as the set of all positive integers. The set of all fractions, including whole numbers, aka integers, is the same size as the set of all integers. The set of all real numbers (all numbers including factions and irrational numbers like pi) is the same size as the set of all real numbers between 0 and 1. The proofs make perfect sense, but the conclusions are maddening.

[โ€“] Yoddel_Hickory@lemmy.ca 37 points 20 hours ago (6 children)

This is what allows pifs to work!

[โ€“] somenonewho@feddit.org 1 points 33 minutes ago

Thanks. I love these kind of fun OpenSource community projects/ideas/jokes whatever. The readme reminds me of ed

[โ€“] Arfman@aussie.zone 3 points 14 hours ago (1 children)

I'm a layman here and not a mathematician but how does it store the complete value of pi and not rounded up to a certain amount? Or do one of the libraries generate that?

[โ€“] lukewarm_ozone@lemmy.today 6 points 12 hours ago

You generate it when needed, using one of the known sequences that converges to ฯ€. As a simple example, the pi() recipe here shows how to compute ฯ€ to arbitrary precision. For an application like pifs you can do even better and use the BBP formula which lets you directly calculate a specific hexadecimal digit of ฯ€.

[โ€“] db0@lemmy.dbzer0.com 7 points 19 hours ago* (last edited 18 hours ago)

Thats very cool. It brings to mind some sort of espionage where spies are exchanging massive messages contained in 2 numbers. The index and the Metadata length. All the other spy has to do is pass it though pifs to decode. Maybe adding some salt as well to prevent someone figuring it out.

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[โ€“] nul42@lemmy.ca 16 points 21 hours ago

It has not been proven either way but if pi is proven to be normal then yes. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_number

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